The first question of the blog comes from a Wicca run site called Pendragon. This site seems to have many of the tough questions that I want to try to tackle in this blog. I will be going back to this list often, but I will try to use other sites, sources, and any questions posted in comments or emailed to me will take precedent.
Here is the question:
"II Kings 2:11 says that Elijah ascended to heaven in a whirlwind. John 3:13 says that nobody before Jesus ever ascended into heaven. Which statement do you believe?"
This isn't a very difficult question to answer, I figured it would be a good place to start. The word heaven in 2 Kings 2:11 means sky. Young's Literal Translation rightly translates this verse as heavens. Elijah did not ascend to heaven. Jesus was the first.
It is a shame, this is an instance where the "translators" of the King James Version and the New American Standard, among others, decided not just to translate, but to add just a little bit of their doctrine.
Tuesday, August 28, 2007
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3 comments:
It is really important to keep things in context. Jesus is talking with a Jewish leader, Nicodemus, who came with questions. To what should have been a rather elementary statement, Nicodemus shows ignorance. Jesus comment is that Nicodemus is unable to understand earthly concepts, and can not be expected to understand heavenly ones. Barnes' Notes On the NT helps clarify the meaning of the statement in 3:13: "And no man hath ascended into heaven." No man, therefore, is qualified to speak of heavenly things, John 3:12. To speak of those things requires intimate acquaintance with them-demands that we have seen them; and as no one has ascended into heaven and returned, so no one is qualified to speak of them but He who came down from heaven. This does not mean that no one had gone to heaven or had been saved, for Enoch and Elijah had been borne there (Genesis 5:24; comp. Hebrews 11:5, 2 Kings 2:11), and Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and others were there; but it means that no one had ascended and returned, so as to be qualified to speak of the things there. —Barnes' Notes on the New Testament
It really is not the issue of the meaning of heaven. Both the KJV and the NASB (which is considered the best literal translation at this time- Bible Gateway.com) use the term correctly in the situation with Elijah.
Both of these translations utilized a large group of scholars of the day to check and recheck terms and phrases so that personal viewpoints are less likely to be involved in the translation.
I prefer to believe what Jesus said over Barnes' interpretation. Jesus said:
"No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven"
I think Jesus was pretty clear.
Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry seems to agree
http://www.carm.org/diff/John3_13.htm
Tektonics Apologetics does as well
http://www.tektonics.org/af/firstascent.html
As does Apologetics Press
http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/523
"Enoch and Elijah had been borne there"
You cite verses that don't actually say they went to heaven. Expect for the poorly translated verse in 2 Kings.
"This does not mean that no one had gone to heaven"
Its exactly what it means. Jesus said so. I am not saying Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Enoch or Elijah weren't saved. I am however saying that at the time Jesus was on the earth they had not yet ascended into heaven.
I think i can't answer it using literal or word study because the Old Testament use heavens for sky, and sky for heavens, too. I think," What was the difference between Elijah and Jesus ascends to heaven?"
Elijah had ascended but will not return. But Jesus will return and he prepare a place for us in heaven.
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